Reseller want's extra ip's for nameserver, possible?

Richard G

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I'm admin of a dedi server with DA on it.

I got a reseller which want's his own ipadresses.
I know you can assign an ip to a reseller which he can assign to a user for example for a certificate.

But this reseller want's to have 2 extra ip adresses assigned to him, to be used for his own nameservers.
So wel a user does a reverse lookup of the nameserver ip's, the user will get ns1.resellerdomain.com instead of ns1.admindomain.com.

The following questions occur:
1.) Is this even possible (I know it's not advisable)?
2.) Can he use ns1 and ns2 resellerdomain.com or must he use ns3 and ns4?
 
Give him the IP#s, and let him call the nameservers anything he wants, but if he's changing nameserver names he'll need to do that and/or is clients will need to do that, for every domain hosted on the server, with the registrar(s) for those domains.

Then you or your upstream will need to change the rDNS for those IP#s to point to the names he's using.

Jeff
 
So basically it's the same as with admin using ip's for his own nameserver.
Clients must point to nameservers of the reseller. Reseller must make his own nameservers and me or my upstream must provide the rdns for the ip's. More eaysier then I thought.

Thank you for the info Jeff!
 
With one caveat I forgot about earlier: the nameservers, no matter what IP# you use to ask them, will always respond FROM the servers' main nameserver addresses, which by rDNS may resolve to your nameserver names. I don't see how that's an issue, but if it is, then he needs to have his own server or VPS, because he's got to have his own physical nameserver(s).

Jeff
 
the nameservers, no matter what IP# you use to ask them, will always respond with the server's main domain.
I don't quite understand.
I made (with a reseller account for myself) nameservers with the ip's for the main server. These are virtual nameservers.
So I do have ns1.mydomain.nl and ns2.mydomain.nl which points to the admin domains ip's and the ip's resolve to ns1.admindomain.nl.

But if the reseller who wants these ip's, will have A records for both nameservers and point to the new ip's and the new ip's got the rdns to ns1.resellerdomain.com and ns2.resellerdomain.com... then how can they respond with servers main domain?

I don't quite understand that yet.
 
You do not need reverse dns on nameservers at all its completely pointless. It will respond to any domains that bind is hosting. The only way it would only reply to customers only domains is if you ran a 2nd copy of bind with a different config and setup but that would be completely useless use of resources. You are just binding more ips that the dns server listens on. If he is not happy with that then you need to sell him a virtual server or dedicated server.
 
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You do not need reverse dns on nameservers at all its completely pointless.
I fully agree, and I find it a waste of ipv4 addresses too.
But the client wants it this way if possible.

I just don't quite understand a little thing.
Suppose my admin ns1 is ns1.admindomain.com with A record (ip address) 74.75.76.77.
Reseller gets ip 74.75.76.80 and makes ns1.resellerdomain.com with it, along with the A records.
So far so good, correct?
So if a user does an nslookup to ns1.resellerdomain.com the answer would be 74.75.76.80 correct?
And if the user does an nslookup 74.75.76.80, the answer will be ns1.resellerdomain.com wouldn't it?

Or am I missing something? Because I don't quite see where the original admin domain name or ip gets resolved here.

Again, i fully agree it's useless, bad idea etc. but if he want's it that way he can get it. Unless it won't work this way.
That's what I'm trying to understand.
 
Why does it matter what they resolve to? You can register the ips as nameservers at the domain registrar and setup A records on the dns server and that's all you need to do. Ptr is useless and un-needed. Its for looks only nothing else. I have never heard of anyone changing the ptr records for the use of nameservers only.
 
Why does it matter what they resolve to?
To me it doesn't matter at all. But the client doesn't like his nameserver ip to resolve to our nameservers.
And we do that to our nameservers because it's also used for mx record, ptr is needed for that.

So it's just de client's strange wishes, not ours.:)
 
So you have to ask your hosting provider to change the ptr record unless you have dns delegation already. Unless you have a big block of ip addresses you wont have dns delegation and you just open a support ticket with your hosting provider telling them what hostname you want to point to the ip address and they will change it for you. Posting your real ip address here will make more sense if you need further help.
 
Why should i post my real ip here? I am also my own hosting provider so I can put up the rdns for the ip's myself. I only have to ask my datacenter to give me an extra 2 ip's for my client.

But that wasn't my question. My question was if I would give our reseller 2 ip's, if he could make his own nameserver with that by creating the necesarry A records. That can be done so that question is answered already.
The other question was if I make the rdns or ptr records to that ip, if an nslookup will resolve to his domains nameservers and not to ours.

As far as I know this would be no problem.
I'm only getting confused because Jeff says it will always respond with the servers main domain. I don't understand why that would be the case.
 
I don't quite understand.
I made (with a reseller account for myself) nameservers with the ip's for the main server. These are virtual nameservers.

...and...
I'm only getting confused because Jeff says it will always respond with the servers main domain. I don't understand why that would be the case.
Sorry, I've corrected my error. I should have written:

will always respond FROM the servers' main nameserver addresses, which by rDNS may resolve to your nameserver names.

I've corrected my post.

Jeff
 
if you ran a 2nd copy of bind with a different config and setup but that would be completely useless use of resources.
Not too easy, either; it wouldn't start if bound to the same ports, and it won't respond to requests if bound to different ports. So you'd have to set it up to listen on different ports, and then set your firewall to redirect port traffic based on destination IP# in the packets.

Jeff
 
I see now you responded to the example I made of my own virtual DNS servers used by my own reseller account. That was only to point out how I have it, and the difference between me and how my client wanted it. My client want's the rdns on his nameservers, I don't mind a bit about my own reseller nameservers how they resolve.

will always respond FROM the servers' main nameserver addresses, which by rDNS may resolve to your nameserver names.
Yes ofcourse, I understand better now. And when rDNS is configured properly for the reseller, you won't see anything of the servers' main nameserver address, in spite of the fact that the answer is still coming from the servers' main nameserver.

But I just remembered something else, which might give me a good argument to get this stupid idea out of my resellers head.:)

Because he can have nameservers all he want, and rdns all he want, but everytime when anybody does an nslookup to a domain of him or his client, this will always resolve to the servers' main shared ip address on which all domains are configured.

So even when he has his own nameservers, resolving with properly setup rDNS is limited to those 2 nameservers and their ip's, and it still will be very easy to see on which server ip the domains are really hosted when doing an nslookup on the domains.;)

I think when I succeed to explain this to him, he doesn't want the extra ip's anymore. Hopefully!
 
Richard, please restate your last post above with these terms:

Use logical nameserver when referring to YOUR physical nameserver with IP#s assigned to the client's nameservernames, and master nameserver when referring to the nameserver phyiscally running on your hosting server, and slave nameserver when referring to any nameserver you're running on a different physical machine.

Then I can be sure I'm responding correctly.

Thanks.

Jeff
 
I think it's solved, but maybe you can have a look at the new explanation, just to be sure if I was correct in my assumptions.

As to this point, there is only a master nameserver running on the hosting server and a slave server (2nd nameserver) which is running on another physical machine in another data center. I don't understand the term logical nameserver. On the hosting server is running the 2nd nameserver of the other machine, so those 2 servers do dns clustering.

I will try to explain my initial question:

Server is from my boss, I do the support.
Our hosting server, has master nameserver with ip 176.9.xx.xx (ns1.hostingdomain.nl)
Then on another pysical machine on another server 78.46.xx.xx (ns2.hostingdomain.nl)

Since I'm in fact a reseller myselve, my own nameserver (made from reseller account with the "create nameserver with these ip's" option and selected the "virtual" tab) is virtual to my opinion, because the physical server is the master server which I make use of too, like every other account on this server.
It is ns1.mycompany.nl with ip 176.9.xx.xx (same as master) and ns2.mycompany.nl with ip 78.46.xx.xx (same ip as slave).
When I do nslookup ns2.mycompany.nl it will return 176.9.xx.xx and when I do "nslookup 176.9.xx.xx" it will return ns1.hostingdomain.nl which I don't mind that it does. I see this as normal behaviour and no problem at all.
So far so good, no problems there.

Now my boss (master server on hostingdomain) has a client who has also a little hosting company called resellercompany.nl.
He has the same setup as I have. So virtual nameservers with ns1.resellercompany.nl and ns2.resellercompany.nl pointing to the master and slave nameserver ip's as stated.
But he -has- a problem with the nslookup.
He want's his own ip's and make nameservers with them.
So he want his boss to get 2 new ip adresses to assign to this resellercompany's account (for example) 176.9.xx.yy and 176.9.xx.zz.
Then this resellerclient want's do to this:
-Reseller Level -> Nameservers -> With 2 Selected IP's (which would be his 2 new own ip's we have to provide him with) create ns1 and ns2 resellercompany.nl
And this:
- Reseller Level -> List Users -> username -> ns1/ns2: The default values that are given to newly created domains by the User.

All for just 1 reason. When -his- client does "nslookup ns1.resellercompany.nl" the answer won't be 176.9.xx.xx but 176.9.xx.yy.
And when he does "nslookup 176.9.xx.yy" the answer will be ns1.resellercompany.nl instead of ns1.hostingdomain.nl.
Ofcourse my boss has to setup the rdns for the 176.9.xx.yy and zz ip adresses, which is no problem.
My question was, if this was possible this way. I think it is, possible. I also think it's crap and childish.

To my opinion this is totally useless and pointless, because only his nameservers will resolve as he want's. But he wanted it this way, so my boss asked me to have a look if the above would work as described.

However, now I thought of something else.
When he has a client with domain clientdomain.nl and this client will do "nslookup clientdomain.nl" this client won't get 176.9.xx.yy as answer but still 176.9.xx.xx which is the master ip. And this is how it should work.
This can only resolve to this reseller's own nameserver if he get's himself a vps or dedicated server with his own nameservers.

Now I told my boss to explain this to the reseller and since then it is very quiet, so my guess is that the reseller doesn't want the extra ip's anymore, because his clients domains will always resolve to the master nameserver.:)

P.s. 176.9.xx.xx used for ns1.hostingdomain.nl (first ip of master nameserver) is also the main server ip.
 
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Hello Richard,

If your hoster is using 1 IP as shared IP and 2 more IP's for the nameservers, you should find out the IP's he is using for e.g. ns1, ns2 and then register at your domain's control panel 2 nameservers:
ns1 with the hoster's IP for ns1
ns2 with the hoster's IP for ns2
and then create the A records for your domain (DirectAdmin > DNS administration).

For example:
ns1 A 123.45.67.89 (the hoster's IP for ns1)
ns2 A 123.45.67.89 (the hoster's IP for ns2)

or
ns1. thedomainname .com. (there is a dot at the end)

This way you will have your nameservers.
Some of our clients use A records and some Virtual nameservers, but never reported any issue.

Regards, Themis
 
The two posts immediately above are correct. What I'm not sure of is if there's an extended use of nslookup which will return the IP# of the authoritative nameserver, because if so, it will most likely always show the main IP# of the server.

Jeff
 
@Themis: Thank you, but I think you totally missed what I was talking about, mainly because I don't need any nameservers.:)
And I never use the same ip's for ns1 and ns2 (in your example both pointing to 123.45.67.89 which is the same ip). I hope you made a typo.
However, my question was about a client of ours (with own ip's not ours), not about me, and I don't need any reselling either.;)
But thank you for thinking with us about a solution. But as I stated the problem is already solved.

@Jeff:
What I'm not sure of is if there's an extended use of nslookup which will return the IP# of the authoritative nameserver, because if so, it will most likely always show the main IP# of the server
As I explained, there is no extended use as far as I know, only a stupid wish of a reseller who didn't liked it that -his- clients could so easily lookup where they really where hosted.
That's why he wanted his own ip's for his own nameservers, but forgot about the main ip used for the domain names, which is the main shared ip of Directadmin.:)
So as far as I know, there is no real use.
We only do the rdns on our main nameserver ip's because SIDN in the Netherlands has a little bit stricter rules about nameservers and we just like it that people can get an answer when they lookup an ip. So no real use.
 
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